Another article responding to Erano shall be conducted here and of course certain arguments he repeats won't be addressed here but rather you'll be directed to another article where I speak on that particular issue. Also, I will not be defending Islam in this paper, only Christianity shall be defended, although if misrepresentations of Islam arise, I may look at those. With that said, Let's get started.
"For a long time, humanity was made to believe by the preachers of the different Christian denominations and also by the religion Islam that there will be a second coming of Jesus. That all these wars (especially in the Middle East) and calamities happening at present in different parts of the world are signs of his second coming.
Christians believe that when Jesus returns they will be saved and the unbelievers will perish in what they call “hell”while Muslims believe that when Jesus comes they will be rewarded and the unbelievers will be judged. Instead of uniting people of all nations to promote peace in order to stop these senseless wars, or encourage them to act and work with each other to save our planet to prevent calamities from occurring, their religious teachings divide their followers against each other. Their followers were made to look forward to the coming “judgment day” and the coming of Jesus or the second Imam.
In reality, as long as this kind of divisive teaching exists, peoples of the world will never attain true peace, progress and unity."
Peace will only come when the Messianic King comes to reign in Zion. Wars are bound to happen because the world is in the hands of the evil one, namely Satan. One can do their best to subdue calamity and disaster, but not completely stop it.
The question here is why will Jesus still return a second time if His brutal death is proof that he had already accomplished the mission that God gave him?
The answer can be found thru the Bible explanations of Maestro Eraño M. Evangelista of (insert his website here).
The key to understanding whether Jesus will return or not can be found thru the meaning of the “third day” that was said by Jesus:
“Jesus took the Twelve aside and told them, "We are going up to Jerusalem, and everything that is written by the prophets about the Son of Man will be fulfilled.”
Luke 18:31 (NIV)
Jesus speaks here about the prophecy that will happen upon him being the “son of Man,” He is referring here to himself.
What was stated in the prophecy?
“He will be handed over to the Gentiles. They will mock him, insult him, spit on him, flog him and kill him.”
Luke 18:32 (NIV)
According to Jesus, as stated in the prophecy, he will suffer great humiliation, be flogged, and will be put to death"
There is a reason that Jesus will suffer death in the first place, in order to die on the cross as a ransom for our sins. He is telling his disciples what he is coming to do. He will suffer and die, but for what reason is he condemned to die? We'll see.
"Why will Jesus suffer such a brutal ordeal? Why will God allow men to flog, beat and eventually kill Jesus?
Let us read the prophecy that Jesus spoke about that contains the REAL WORD of GOD why he will be flogged and beaten by men:
When your days are over and you rest with your ancestors, I will raise up your offspring to succeed you, your own flesh and blood, and I will establish his kingdom. He is the one who will build a house for my Name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. I will be his father, and he will be my son. WHEN HE DOES WRONG, I WILL PUNISH HIM WITH A ROD WIELDED BY MEN, WITH FLOGGINGS INFLICTED BY HUMAN HANDS –
2 Samuel 7:12-14 (NIV)
This is the word of God given to David, (spoken through the prophet Nathan) that his descendant will build a house with the Name of God. We can understand now why Jesus said that he is a “Son of Man" in Luke 18:31-32 because he is the prophesied descendant of King David, of his (King David’s) OWN flesh and blood."
Considering the fact he blathers about Exodus 32, Deuteronomy 18, Deuteronomy 24:16, 2 Samuel 7:14, Isaiah 53, Jeremiah 44:24, Matthew 16, Matthew 27:46, Luke 4, Luke 12:46-53, John 8:44 and Revelation 22:16, I'll just simply link to the following articles considering I have already refuted his claims by the grace of YHWH:
What turning the cheek actually means is addressed, as well as what eye for an eye actually means in these articles:
Sam Shamoun addresses the objection about the citation of Jeremiah in his article response to Shabir Ali, He says:
"Shabir On Matthew's Citation of Jeremiah
Shabir claims that Matthew falsely attributes a prophecy made by Zechariah to Jeremiah:
"So they decided to use the money to buy the potter's field as a burial place for foreigners. That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day. Then what was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet was fulfilled: 'They took the thirty silver coins, the price set on him by the people of Israel, and they used them to buy the potter's field, as the Lord commanded me.'" Matthew 27:7-10
Matthew's citation is actually a conflation of Zechariah 11:12-13 and Jeremiah 19:1-13 and 32:6-9. There is a very simple explanation why Matthew would attribute the prophecy to Jeremiah:
"... Why did Mattiyahu ascribe the words to Jeremiah? One suggestion is supported by Talmudic references: the scroll of the Prophets may have originally begun with Jeremiah (the longest book, by word count), not Isaiah; if so Mattiyahu, by naming Jeremiah is referring to the Prophets as a group; not naming the particular prophet quoted." (Dr. David Stern, Jewish New Testament Commentary [Jewish New Testament Publications, Inc.; Clarksville, Maryland 1996 fifth edition], p. 83)
Furthermore, it was a common Jewish exegetical practice to link together passages which had identical words or phrases. Liberal NT exegete John C. Fenton, a Muslim favorite, while commenting on Matthew 2:5-6, noted:
"The prophecy is from Mic. 5.2, but it is not given in the LXX translation, nor is it an exact rendering of the Hebrew text, 2 Sam 5.2 MAY have been combined with the Micah prophecy; combining of similar Old Testament passages WAS A REGULAR FEATURE OF RABBINIC STUDY OF THE SCRIPTURES." (Fenton, Saint Matthew - The Penguin New Testament Commentaries, Penguin Books, 1963, p. 46; bold and capital emphasis ours)
This practice is known as gezera shewa, and demonstrates that Matthew was thoroughly Jewish in his use and exegesis of the OT text." (Sam Shamoun, Some of Shabir Ally's Favorite Questions http://answering-islam.org/Responses/Shabir-Ally/favorites.htm#mt27_9)
The next following objections won't be addressed necessarily in order, but I will try to address the objections to the best of my ability: This shall be continued in another article.