I had previously back in 2012 done a video response to two Roman Catholics by the name of CT_West_Coast and Savioursheart and an Eastern Orthodox (I am guessing I could be wrong), by the name of AsyrianPrince9.
Looking back on the original video (watch here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=UKNgaUEBykA), it isn't quite up to scratch so I thought I'd might go back an readdress some of the objections presented in the original video, as I feel the response was at best inadequate. I had only just begun doing video responses to certain objections and my knowledge back then wasn't up to scratch as it is now. Having said that, I hope to respond to the objections properly and not blather on. With that said, Let's get started.
Luke 1:28's abuse has been addressed here already: http://answering-judaism.blogspot.co.uk/2014/10/mary-greatest-woman-who-ever-lived.html
All have sinned, But who is the exception?
Romans 3:23 says the following:
"23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and all are justified freely by his grace through the redemption that came by Christ Jesus. 25 God presented Christ as a sacrifice of atonement,[i] through the shedding of his blood—to be received by faith. He did this to demonstrate his righteousness, because in his forbearance he had left the sins committed beforehand unpunished— 26 he did it to demonstrate his righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies those who have faith in Jesus."
I made it clear that this text would demonstrate that Mary was a sinner and the contrived excuse and rebuttal to this was "Well Mary must of sinned" or "All means All". In other words, If Mary sinned in the context Jesus must have sinned.
However in the context above, Jesus is portrayed as the sinless atonement and thus in the context would not fall into the section where all have sinned. Not to mention it is very clear and abundant even in other contexts that Jesus himself is not even a sinner to begin with and no the phrase "all" in Romans 3:23 does not include Jesus as part of sinful man.
Here are the other passages and note what is highlighted:
"2 Corinthians 5:20 We are therefore Christ’s ambassadors, as though God were making his appeal through us. We implore you on Christ’s behalf: Be reconciled to God. 21 God made him who had no sin to be sin[b] for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."
"Hebrews 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet he did not sin."
"1 Peter 2:21 To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps.
22 “He committed no sin,
and no deceit was found in his mouth.”[e]
23 When they hurled their insults at him, he did not retaliate; when he suffered, he made no threats. Instead, he entrusted himself to him who judges justly. 24 “He himself bore our sins” in his body on the cross, so that we might die to sins and live for righteousness; “by his wounds you have been healed."
I was of course accused of adding to the text, however my opponents I feel failed to see the irony of their words, but the point is, the Roman Catholic has NO basis biblically to claim Mary was without sin.
While the last three texts I never brought to the three in a dialogue, I later did include it in the original video.
There is no evidence for Roman Catholic claims regarding Mary when one looks into their claims.